genealogies, OT and NT) only through the male line. It's impossible for
Joseph to have had TWO different male-line descents from David--so one of
the two must be in some way false, whether by fabrication or by error.
Regards
John P.
From: Gordon Banks <geb@gordonbanks.com
To: GEN-MEDIEVAL-L@rootsweb.com
Subject: Re: Jesus, his brother and his nephew
Date: Fri, 19 Nov 2004 09:02:24 -0800
On Fri, 2004-11-19 at 08:35, DPCP1@aol.com wrote:
Probably it's also not valid to say of the differing
gospel genealogies that one of them must be false. If
anywhere, on this list we are aware of individuals with
multiple documentable descents from (for example)
Charlemagne. It seems this would be even more likely
in a much smaller and less-mobile population like that
of First Century B.C.E. Palestine. Could Jesus have
had 3 (one through Mary) or more valid descents from
David a millenium removed ? Probably almost certain,
don't you think ?
Those genealogies both claim to be male line through Joseph, don't
they? Mary isn't mentioned. You can have more than one descent from
Charlemagne, but at least one of them is through a female.
The two NT genealogies also differ as to who was father of whom.